Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
This passage has been on my mind a lot lately. I'm sure it's not difficult to understand why. I bring it up here because I hope it starts a discussion about whether homosexuality is a sin or not. Now this seems to be very blatant, but I have heard an argument otherwise. It basically states that the wording means that these people went against their own natures. In other words, people who would normally not be attracted to the same sex were suddenly having sex with the same sex. On the flip side, someone who is normally attracted to their same sex would be in sin to have sex with someone of the opposite sex. personally I feel that this argument is on shaky ground and I am hoping that someone can either give me a solid explanation of how this works or has other information on how one can be gay and not be in sin.